HELP PLEASE the answrtr
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first:
[tex]\left(\frac{1}{4}+1\frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \frac{1}{2} =\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{2}\right)\cdot \frac{1}{2} =\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{2}\right)\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{6}{4}\right)\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\frac{7}{4}\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\frac{7}{4}}{2} =\frac{7}{4\cdot \:2} =\frac{7}{8}[/tex]
So the first is the correct one.
by a romanian guy.
Answer:
It would be 1 1/8 because 1 times 1 = 1 and the 4 times 2 would be 8 so there is 1 1/8
Step-by-step explanation: